Did Jesus Claim to Be God?
Did the historical Jesus really claim to be God as Christians say? The last two weeks we looked at what the New Testament says. This week we’ll look at some evidence to see if the claims of deity go back to Jesus himself or if they were added by the church later on.
Son of God
We saw that, according to the New Testament, Jesus’ two favorite titles for himself were Son of God and Son of Man. We saw that both were claims to be deity. But did the historical Jesus really use these title for himself or did the church put those words in his mouth later on? Let’s look at the evidence for each of the titles, starting with Son of God.
Did Jesus really call himself the Son of God, claiming a special connection to the Father, as we saw last week, or is it reasonable that the church put those words in his mouth? Gary Habermas points out that when you look at Mark 13:32 in particular, it seems very unlikely that the church put the words in Jesus’ mouth. In the passage Jesus is talking about end times events and the verse says,
“But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.”
Here Jesus is speaking of himself as the Son, the Son of the Father, the Son of God, and he says that he doesn’t know when the end is going to come, only the Father knows. So if you were the church and you wanted to make Jesus claim to be God, when he didn’t do so himself, and so you made up and inserted such claims, why would you insert this claim? It’s problematic. Why would you have him say, “Yeah, I’m God, but I don’t know something, only the Father does.”
Why would you invent a claim that could make Jesus sound limited and maybe less than the Father? If you were making it up, why wouldn’t you just have Jesus say, “But about that day or hour no one knows except the Father and the Son”? Why invent a problematic claim. To me it seems more reasonable that this claim is included in the New Testament because Jesus himself made it and the New Testament authors were committed to recording what he said, even if it might seem problematic.
Son of Man
So what about the title, “Son of Man”, which we saw was equally a claim to deity? How do we know the church didn’t just make up and insert the Son of Man phrases in the New Testament? For one, as I mentioned last week, you need to have a reason why the Jewish leaders had Jesus crucified. If it wasn’t because of his claims to be God, including the use of Son of Man in Mark 14:61, what was the reason?
Further, though, how do we know the church didn’t insert the words into Jesus’ mouth? In the gospels the title Son of Man is Jesus’ favorite title for himself. He uses it more than any other. So how do we know the church didn’t just put this title in his mouth? Because, as Habermas points out, the church, the writers of the letters that make up the rest of the New Testament, never use this title for Jesus. If the church decided “We need to make Jesus claim to be God. Let’s insert into the gospel accounts Jesus claiming to be the Son of Man.”, if they decided that and did that, then why didn’t they ever use that title for Jesus in their own writings?
Wouldn’t you be consistent? Why would you have Jesus claim to be the Son of Man but never have him referred to as such in the New Testament letters to the churches? Looking at the whole New Testament, it’s not a title that the church used of him. It seems that one person referred to Jesus as the Son of Man, Jesus himself.
What Does the Evidence Support?
If someone would rather believe that Jesus didn’t make the claims to be God himself, it’s easy to say that the church just made it up. But when you consider the evidence, does it support that idea? I believe it’s more reasonable to believe that Jesus made the claims himself and that’s why he was crucified and the church faithfully recorded his claims and his words in the New Testament, even when some of his statements were difficult.
What do you think?
Source: Lecture on the Historical Jesus by Gary Habermas